According to French outlet Media Foot (via Le10Sport), Ligue 1 giants Paris Saint-Germain (PSG) have identified Evan Ndicka as Milan Skriniar’s alternative. They, however, are not the only team interested in the Eintracht Frankfurt player, with Serie A outfit Juventus also keeping a close eye on him.

PSG failed in their attempts to sign Skriniar, who has less than a year remaining on his contract with Inter Milan (June 2023), in the 2022 summer transfer window. The Parisians are set to have another go next summer, with president Nasser Al-Khelaifi set to do his best to make sure Skriniar does not sign an extension. The club’s sporting director Luis Campos, however, has reportedly started preparing for the worst.

According to the aforementioned report, the club from the French capital have drawn up a list of Skriniar alternatives. Ndicka, 23, is one of the names on the shortlist. The AJ Auxerre graduate sees his contract with Frankfurt expire in June 2023 and the two parties are yet to agree terms for an extension.

Unless the Frenchman signs an extension, PSG could get him as a free agent next summer. However, they are not alone in their pursuit of the Frankfurt center-back. As revealed by CalcioMercatoWeb, Juventus have been interested in signing him for quite some time now. The management is pleased with the player’s profile and could make a move to sign Ndicka for free next June.

The center-back has been ever-present in the Frankfurt lineup this season, starting in all 11 games across competitions.